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-ig- VS -iĝ-

af Fou, 14. apr. 2011

Meddelelser: 61

Sprog: English

Kirilo81 (Vise profilen) 18. apr. 2011 21.09.59

Miland:Actually the term in English seems to be associated more with semitic languages. Further, it appears to express action rather than state, as this google page from a Hebrew grammar indicates (section 134, "Fientive Qal").
That would be awkward, as fientive comes from Latin fieri "to become".
I can't speak for Hebrew, but in Akkadian you don't fientive in that way (or at all).

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