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-ig- VS -iĝ-

av Fou, 14 april 2011

Meddelanden: 61

Språk: English

Kirilo81 (Visa profilen) 18 april 2011 21:09:59

Miland:Actually the term in English seems to be associated more with semitic languages. Further, it appears to express action rather than state, as this google page from a Hebrew grammar indicates (section 134, "Fientive Qal").
That would be awkward, as fientive comes from Latin fieri "to become".
I can't speak for Hebrew, but in Akkadian you don't fientive in that way (or at all).

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