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What would have been, if...

by Hyperboreus, August 26, 2012

Messages: 20

Language: English

Hyperboreus (User's profile) August 26, 2012, 5:35:33 PM

Forigite

Hyperboreus (User's profile) August 26, 2012, 5:36:06 PM

Forigite

Vestitor (User's profile) August 26, 2012, 5:57:32 PM

Hyperboreus:Their argumentation was: If you say “He sees me.” and “I see him.” then why don’t you say “Him runs.” and “Me runs.”, which would be only logical.
Why would it be logical? 'He sees me' and 'He runs' makes perfect alignment sense (to me), as would I see him' and 'I run'...rather than the other suggested logical inferences. The question is genuine because I'm not a linguist and I would appreciate the explanation.

Hyperboreus (User's profile) August 26, 2012, 6:06:02 PM

Forigite

razlem (User's profile) August 26, 2012, 6:07:49 PM

Oh lawd. Ergative case. But it looks and sounds very interesting ridulo.gif

Hyperboreus (User's profile) August 26, 2012, 6:10:28 PM

Forigite

EldanarLambetur (User's profile) August 26, 2012, 6:34:30 PM

Somehow, I've never looked into "absolutive" and "ergative"! Thanks for bringing them to my attention with a simple example! Looks interesting!

I shall take a peek at this Mayan Esperanto ridego.gif

Vestitor (User's profile) August 26, 2012, 6:35:10 PM

I think I see now. So this explains similar structures in languages like Caribbean creoles and other pidgin Englishes? Like Sranan Tongo in Suriname where people say 'Mi go' (I go/am going)instead of I am going. Is that the same principle or different?

Hyperboreus (User's profile) August 26, 2012, 6:42:23 PM

Forigite

Hyperboreus (User's profile) August 26, 2012, 6:52:43 PM

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